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SOMAPL1BThe Cardiovascular System: Blood

Medical Vocabulary

OBJ 2675
Question 1 of 17
FITB
The root erythros means _____, as seen in the term erythrocyte.

Question 2 of 17
FITB
The root leukos means _____, which is why white blood cells are called leukocytes.

Question 3 of 17
FITB
The root haima means _____, as found in the term hemostasis.

Question 4 of 17
FITB
The root stasis means _____, explaining why hemostasis literally means "blood halt."

Question 5 of 17
FITB
The root thrombos means _____, which is why platelets are also called thrombocytes.

Question 6 of 17
FITB
The root poiesis means _____, as in hemopoiesis (blood cell production).

Question 7 of 17
FITB
The root myelos means _____, explaining why red bone marrow tissue is called myeloid tissue.

Question 8 of 17
FITB
The root megas means _____, and karyon means nucleus — together forming the word megakaryocyte.

Question 9 of 17
MC
The term agglutinins comes from the root agglutinins meaning "gluing." What are agglutinins in the blood?
Surface antigens on red blood cells
Plasma proteins that synthesize fibrin
Plasma antibodies that attack foreign red blood cell surface antigens
Clotting proteins produced by the liver
Iron transport proteins in the bloodstream
Question 10 of 17
MC
The prefix hypo- means "below." The term hypoxia therefore refers to:
Excessive oxygen in the tissues
Absence of red blood cells
High blood viscosity
Low oxygen concentration in the tissues
Absence of plasma proteins
Question 11 of 17
FITB
The root vena means vein and punctura means a piercing. The combined term for drawing blood from a superficial vein is _____.

Question 12 of 17
FITB
The root embolos means plug. An abnormal mass drifting within the bloodstream is called an _____.

Question 13 of 17
MC
The suffix -osis means "condition." Knowing that leukos means white and kytos means cell, leukocytosis refers to:
Reduced white blood cell count
Excessive numbers of white blood cells
White blood cells leaving the bloodstream
Production of white blood cells in bone marrow
Destruction of white blood cells by pathogens
Question 14 of 17
FITB
The root penia means poverty. A condition of too few white blood cells is called leuko_____.

Question 15 of 17
MC
The term fibrinolysis contains the root lysis, meaning to break apart. Fibrinolysis therefore refers to:
Formation of fibrin strands during clotting
Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
Activation of clotting factors by the liver
Dissolution of a blood clot by the enzyme plasmin
Retraction of a clot to close a wound
Question 16 of 17
MC
The root oxy- means presence of oxygen. Knowing this, why is the condition hypoxia clinically significant?
It means too much oxygen, which damages tissues directly
It means blood is too alkaline for normal cell function
It triggers erythropoietin release, stimulating increased red blood cell production to restore oxygen delivery
It causes white blood cells to leave the bloodstream and enter tissues
It converts fibrinogen to fibrin, initiating clotting
Question 17 of 17
FITB
The root agglutin- means gluing. Surface antigens on red blood cells that can trigger clumping are called agglutin_____.

Components & Functions of Blood

OBJ 2676
Question 1 of 8
MC
Blood is best classified as which type of tissue?
Epithelial tissue
Muscle tissue
Specialized fluid connective tissue
Dense regular connective tissue
Nervous tissue
Question 2 of 8
SATA
Select ALL major functions of blood as described in the textbook.
Select all that apply.
Transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes
Regulating pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
Restricting fluid losses at injury sites through clotting
Defending against toxins and pathogens
Stabilizing body temperature
Question 3 of 8
MC
What is the normal pH range of blood?
6.80 – 7.10
7.35 – 7.45
7.50 – 7.70
7.00 – 7.20
7.60 – 7.80
Question 4 of 8
MC
Blood is approximately how many times more viscous than water?
Two times
Three times
Five times
Ten times
Twenty times
Question 5 of 8
FITB
Whole blood consists of two main components: plasma and the _____.

Question 6 of 8
MC
The hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by the formed elements. What is the average hematocrit in adult males?
42 percent
46 percent
55 percent
38 percent
50 percent
Question 7 of 8
MC
Venipuncture is the preferred method for blood collection primarily because:
Veins carry oxygenated blood, which is more useful for testing
Venous blood has a lower pH, making analysis easier
Venous blood is free of formed elements
Superficial veins are easy to locate, their walls are thin, and low venous pressure allows the puncture to seal quickly
Veins are wider than arteries, reducing the risk of collapse
Question 8 of 8
MC
A patient is severely dehydrated. What effect would you expect on their hematocrit, and why?
Decreased hematocrit, because dehydration destroys red blood cells
No change, because hematocrit only reflects white blood cell numbers
Decreased hematocrit, because EPO production drops during dehydration
Increased hematocrit, because plasma volume is reduced while the number of red blood cells remains the same
Increased hematocrit, because dehydration directly stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow

Plasma Composition & Function

OBJ 2677
Question 1 of 8
MC
What percentage of plasma volume is water?
55 percent
92 percent
7 percent
45 percent
75 percent
Question 2 of 8
FITB
The three primary types of plasma proteins are albumins, globulins, and _____.

Question 3 of 8
MC
Albumins make up approximately what percentage of the plasma proteins, and what is their primary function?
35 percent; transporting lipids in the bloodstream
4 percent; forming the fibrin framework for blood clots
60 percent; maintaining the osmotic pressure of plasma
60 percent; attacking foreign proteins and pathogens as antibodies
35 percent; maintaining osmotic pressure of plasma
Question 4 of 8
MC
When fibrinogen is converted to fibrin and the clotting proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is called:
Interstitial fluid
Serum
Plasma
Lymph
Hematocrit
Question 5 of 8
MC
More than 90 percent of plasma proteins are synthesized by which organ?
Kidneys
Spleen
Liver
Red bone marrow
Thymus
Question 6 of 8
MC
Globulins that bind and carry small ions, hormones, or compounds in the bloodstream are called:
Immunoglobulins
Fibrinogen
Albumins
Transport globulins
Lipoproteins
Question 7 of 8
MC
A patient develops severe liver disease that significantly reduces the liver's ability to produce plasma proteins. Which of the following consequences would you most likely expect?
Increased blood viscosity due to excess fibrinogen
Elevated white blood cell counts due to reduced immune function
Increased red blood cell production to compensate for plasma loss
Uncontrolled bleeding due to inadequate synthesis of fibrinogen and other clotting proteins
Excessive platelet formation leading to dangerous clotting
Question 8 of 8
FITB
Antibodies produced by plasma cells of the lymphatic system are also known as _____.

Origin of Formed Elements

OBJ 2678
Question 1 of 8
FITB
The process by which all formed elements are produced is called _____.

Question 2 of 8
MC
In adults, red bone marrow is the only site for red blood cell production. Red bone marrow is located in all of the following EXCEPT:
Vertebrae
Sternum
Proximal limb bones
The patella (kneecap)
Pelvis
Question 3 of 8
MC
Hemocytoblasts in red bone marrow give rise to two types of stem cells. Which of the following correctly pairs these stem cells with the formed elements they produce?
Lymphoid stem cells → RBCs and platelets; Myeloid stem cells → lymphocytes
Lymphoid stem cells → all WBCs; Myeloid stem cells → RBCs only
Myeloid stem cells → lymphocytes; Lymphoid stem cells → granulocytes
Myeloid stem cells → RBCs, platelets, and non-lymphocyte WBCs; Lymphoid stem cells → lymphocytes
Myeloid stem cells → all formed elements; Lymphoid stem cells → plasma proteins only
Question 4 of 8
MC
During extreme sustained blood loss, areas of yellow bone marrow can convert to red bone marrow. Why is this clinically important?
Yellow marrow stores vitamin K, which is needed for clotting factor synthesis
Yellow marrow produces lymphocytes that replace lost white blood cells
It increases the capacity for red blood cell production during a crisis, helping restore oxygen-carrying capacity
Yellow marrow converts to red marrow to produce platelets only
It reduces blood viscosity by diluting the remaining formed elements
Question 5 of 8
MC
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) regulate the production of which white blood cells?
Lymphocytes only
All WBCs including lymphocytes
All WBCs other than lymphocytes
Red blood cells only, not white blood cells
Platelets and basophils only
Question 6 of 8
FITB
Platelets are produced from enormous red bone marrow cells called _____.

Question 7 of 8
MC
During embryonic development, what are the primary sites of hemopoiesis from weeks 2–5 of development through the first 8 weeks?
Red bone marrow of the sternum and vertebrae
Vessels of the embryonic yolk sac
The thymus gland
Lymph nodes
The placenta
Question 8 of 8
MC
Lymphopoiesis — the production of lymphocytes — occurs in which locations?
Red bone marrow only
Thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes only
Yellow bone marrow and liver
Red bone marrow and peripheral lymphatic tissues including the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes
The liver and kidneys only

Red Blood Cells

OBJ 2679
Question 1 of 10
MC
What is the shape of a mature red blood cell, and why is this shape functionally important?
Spherical — allows the cell to squeeze through any vessel without deforming
Biconcave disc — increases surface area to volume ratio for diffusion and allows flexing through narrow capillaries
Biconcave disc — provides a large nucleus needed for oxygen storage
Elongated rod — maximizes surface contact with vessel walls for nutrient exchange
Flat disc — prevents aggregation and reduces blood viscosity
Question 2 of 10
MC
Mature red blood cells lack mitochondria. What does this mean for how they obtain energy?
They use aerobic respiration powered by hemoglobin instead of mitochondria
They rely on lipid oxidation from stored triglycerides in the cytoplasm
They do not require energy because they have no nucleus or ribosomes
They obtain energy only through anaerobic metabolism using glucose from the surrounding plasma
They absorb ATP directly from surrounding plasma proteins
Question 3 of 10
FITB
Hemoglobin accounts for over 95 percent of an RBC's intracellular proteins. Each hemoglobin molecule has four subunits, each containing one molecule of the organic pigment called _____.

Question 4 of 10
MC
At the lungs, hemoglobin binds oxygen and releases carbon dioxide. What triggers this behavior in peripheral tissues?
High oxygen levels in the capillaries force hemoglobin to switch from carrying oxygen to carrying carbon dioxide
Active cells consume oxygen and produce carbon dioxide, causing plasma oxygen to fall and carbon dioxide to rise, which causes hemoglobin to release oxygen and bind carbon dioxide
Erythropoietin signals hemoglobin to offload oxygen in peripheral tissue capillaries
The biconcave shape flattens in peripheral tissues, physically squeezing oxygen out of heme
Iron ions in heme carry an electrical charge that reverses polarity in low-pH environments
Question 5 of 10
MC
The average life span of a circulating red blood cell is approximately:
30 days
120 days
7–12 days
9 months
10 hours
Question 6 of 10
MC
When macrophages recycle hemoglobin from old red blood cells, the heme molecule is stripped of its iron and converted first to biliverdin (green), then to bilirubin (orange-yellow). Where does bilirubin go next?
It is stored permanently in the spleen
It binds to transferrin and returns directly to red bone marrow
It is filtered out through the kidneys and excreted entirely in urine
It binds to albumin in the bloodstream, is transported to the liver, and excreted in bile into the small intestine
It is converted back to hemoglobin in the cytoplasm of macrophages
Question 7 of 10
FITB
The hormone released by the kidneys in response to low tissue oxygen levels that stimulates red blood cell production is called _____.

Question 8 of 10
MC
An erythroblast sheds its nucleus and becomes which intermediate cell type before maturing into a red blood cell?
Hemocytoblast
Proerythroblast
Reticulocyte
Myelocyte
Megakaryocyte
Question 9 of 10
MC
Anemia is defined as a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Which of the following would cause anemia?
Elevated hematocrit due to dehydration
Excess erythropoietin release from the kidneys
Increased reticulocyte release from bone marrow
A low hematocrit or reduced hemoglobin content in red blood cells
Elevated white blood cell count from infection
Question 10 of 10
MC
Iron extracted from recycled heme is transported in the bloodstream bound to which plasma protein, and then delivered to red bone marrow for new hemoglobin synthesis?
Albumin
Transferrin
Fibrinogen
Erythropoietin
Thrombin

Blood Types

OBJ 2680
Question 1 of 8
MC
Blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific surface antigens (agglutinogens) on red blood cells. Which three antigens are of particular clinical importance?
A, B, and C
A, B, and Rh (D)
O, AB, and Rh
X, Y, and Z
Alpha, Beta, and Gamma
Question 2 of 8
MC
A person with Type A blood receives a transfusion of Type B blood. What sequence of events occurs?
Nothing — all ABO blood types are compatible with each other
The donated B cells are quickly destroyed by the spleen with no systemic reaction
The recipient's anti-A antibodies attack the donor's Type B cells, causing agglutination
The recipient's anti-B antibodies attack the donor's Type B surface antigens, causing agglutination and potentially hemolysis, which can block small vessels
The recipient's red blood cells absorb the foreign surface antigens and change blood type
Question 3 of 8
FITB
Type O blood (especially O negative) individuals are sometimes called universal donors because their RBCs lack _____ surface antigens.

Question 4 of 8
MC
An Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus for the second time. Why is the second pregnancy at higher risk than the first for hemolytic disease of the newborn?
The mother's blood type changes during the first pregnancy to match the fetus
The first pregnancy produces no immune response, but the second pregnancy introduces Rh antigens into the maternal bloodstream for the first time
The placenta breaks down completely in second pregnancies, mixing all fetal and maternal blood
The mother was sensitized by fetal Rh antigens during the first delivery, so her immune system now produces massive amounts of anti-Rh antibodies that cross the placenta and attack the second fetus's red blood cells
The second fetus always has a higher Rh antigen concentration than the first
Question 5 of 8
MC
A person with Type AB blood has:
Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma
Neither A nor B surface antigens on their red blood cells
Both A and B surface antigens on their red blood cells and neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in their plasma
Only anti-A antibodies in their plasma
Only the Rh antigen on their red blood cells
Question 6 of 8
MC
Standard blood typing involves mixing drops of blood with solutions containing anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies. If a sample clumps when exposed to anti-A and anti-Rh antibodies only, what is the blood type?
B positive
AB positive
A positive
O positive
A negative
Question 7 of 8
MC
Cross-match testing involves exposing the donor's red blood cells to the recipient's plasma. What is the purpose of this test beyond standard ABO and Rh typing?
To confirm the donor's blood type a second time using the same antibody panel
To measure the hematocrit of the donated blood before transfusion
To screen for bacterial contamination in the blood supply
To detect significant cross-reactions from any of the 48 or more other possible surface antigens beyond A, B, and Rh
To determine if the donor has a history of erythropoietin use
Question 8 of 8
FITB
The process in which antibodies bind foreign surface antigens and cause red blood cells to clump together is called _____.

White Blood Cells

OBJ 2681
Question 1 of 10
MC
White blood cells are divided into granulocytes and agranulocytes based on staining. Which of the following are granulocytes?
Monocytes and lymphocytes
Neutrophils, monocytes, and eosinophils
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
Lymphocytes, basophils, and neutrophils
All five types of white blood cells
Question 2 of 10
MC
Neutrophils make up 50–70 percent of circulating white blood cells. They are typically the first WBCs to arrive at an injury site. Their primary function is:
Releasing histamine to promote inflammation
Secreting antibodies into the bloodstream
Phagocytizing and digesting bacteria at injury sites
Attacking targets coated with antibodies by releasing cytotoxic compounds
Producing erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell formation
Question 3 of 10
MC
Eosinophil numbers increase dramatically during which two conditions?
Bacterial infection and dehydration
Parasitic infection and allergic reactions
Viral infections and hypoxia
Blood loss and low plasma calcium
Clotting disorders and liver disease
Question 4 of 10
MC
Basophils migrate to sites of injury and release granules containing heparin and histamine. What role does heparin play?
It dilates blood vessels to increase blood flow to the injury site
It attracts additional eosinophils to the site of inflammation
It activates the intrinsic clotting pathway to seal the injury
It prevents blood clotting, while histamine enhances local inflammation
It signals macrophages to begin phagocytizing debris at the site
Question 5 of 10
FITB
Monocytes that leave the bloodstream and enter peripheral tissues to become aggressive phagocytes are called free _____.

Question 6 of 10
MC
Lymphocytes provide specific defenses rather than nonspecific defenses. This means:
They respond to every pathogen with the same method regardless of type
They only respond to bacteria, not viruses or foreign proteins
They are only active during parasitic infections
They attack specific invading pathogens or foreign proteins on an individual basis, including secreting targeted antibodies or directly attacking foreign cells
They respond to any and all threats by releasing histamine and heparin
Question 7 of 10
MC
All circulating white blood cells share which four functional characteristics?
Phagocytosis, antibody secretion, nucleus ejection, and platelet activation
Amoeboid movement, diapedesis, positive chemotaxis, and the ability to phagocytize (for neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes)
Amoeboid movement, diapedesis, positive chemotaxis, and the ability to secrete antibodies
Amoeboid movement, diapedesis, positive chemotaxis, and phagocytic ability in all five WBC types
Hemoglobin production, diapedesis, chemotaxis, and colony-stimulating factor release
Question 8 of 10
FITB
The process by which white blood cells squeeze between adjacent endothelial cells in capillary walls to exit the bloodstream is called _____.

Question 9 of 10
MC
A differential white blood cell count on a patient shows markedly elevated eosinophils. Which condition should you most suspect?
Bacterial pneumonia, since eosinophils are the primary bacterial killers
Severe iron deficiency anemia reducing oxygen delivery
A viral respiratory infection causing lymphocyte depletion
Thrombocytopenia from bone marrow suppression
A parasitic infection or allergic reaction, since eosinophil counts rise dramatically in both conditions
Question 10 of 10
MC
Extreme leukocytosis — a white blood cell count of 100,000 per microliter or more — is most likely an indication of:
Severe dehydration compressing the plasma volume
Leukemia, a cancer of blood-forming tissues
A normal response to routine bacterial infection
Erythropoietin overstimulation causing white blood cell spillover
Platelet deficiency causing compensatory WBC production

Hemostasis & Blood Loss Control

OBJ 2682
Question 1 of 10
MC
Hemostasis consists of three overlapping phases in the correct sequence. Which answer lists them in the correct order?
Platelet phase → Vascular phase → Coagulation phase
Coagulation phase → Platelet phase → Vascular phase
Vascular phase → Platelet phase → Coagulation phase
Platelet phase → Coagulation phase → Vascular phase
Vascular phase → Coagulation phase → Platelet phase
Question 2 of 10
MC
During the vascular phase of hemostasis, cutting a blood vessel triggers vascular spasm. What does this accomplish, and how long does it last?
Dilates the vessel to flush pathogens out; lasts 10–15 seconds
Activates fibrinogen to begin clot formation; lasts 5 minutes
Contracts smooth muscle in the vessel wall to decrease diameter, slowing or stopping blood loss; lasts about 30 minutes
Releases platelets from the vessel lining into the bloodstream; lasts 24 hours
Triggers neutrophil release to clear the wound; lasts 10 minutes
Question 3 of 10
FITB
During the platelet phase, accumulating platelets form a mass called a platelet _____ that may close the break in the vessel wall.

Question 4 of 10
MC
The coagulation phase involves the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Which enzyme directly catalyzes this final conversion step?
Plasmin
Prothrombinase
Thrombin
Factor X
Tissue plasminogen activator
Question 5 of 10
MC
The extrinsic clotting pathway begins when damaged endothelial cells release tissue factor. What does tissue factor combine with to activate Factor X?
Fibrinogen and Factor VIII
Platelet factor and prothrombin
Thrombin and plasminogen
Calcium ions and clotting Factor VII
Albumin and Factor X directly
Question 6 of 10
MC
A patient has a vitamin K deficiency. What is the most direct consequence for coagulation?
Platelets cannot aggregate because vitamin K activates platelet receptor sites
The vascular phase is eliminated because vitamin K is required for smooth muscle contraction
Plasmin cannot dissolve clots because vitamin K activates fibrinolysis
The liver cannot synthesize four clotting factors including prothrombin, breaking down the common pathway and impairing clotting throughout all three pathways
Fibrinogen cannot dissolve in plasma, making it unavailable for clot formation
Question 7 of 10
FITB
The process by which a blood clot gradually dissolves through the action of the enzyme plasmin is called _____.

Question 8 of 10
MC
A drifting blood clot that forms in the venous system is most likely to become lodged where, and what condition does this produce?
In the capillaries of the brain, causing a stroke
In the coronary arteries, causing a heart attack
In the renal arteries, causing kidney failure
In the capillaries of the lung, causing pulmonary embolism
In the hepatic portal vein, causing liver ischemia
Question 9 of 10
MC
Hemophilia results from inadequate production of which clotting factor most commonly, and through which pathway does this factor operate?
Factor VII; the extrinsic pathway
Factor X; the common pathway
Fibrinogen; the common pathway
Factor VIII; the intrinsic pathway
Prothrombin; the extrinsic pathway
Question 10 of 10
MC
During clot retraction, platelets contract and pull the torn edges of the wound closer together. What is the clinical purpose of this process?
It activates plasminogen to begin dissolving the clot immediately
It releases additional clotting factors to reinforce the fibrin network
It reduces the size of the damaged area, making it easier for fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells, and endothelial cells to complete tissue repair
It expels trapped red blood cells from the clot to prevent hemolysis
It signals the bone marrow to produce additional platelets to reinforce the plug

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SOMAPL1C — The Heart

OBJ 2683 — Medical Vocabulary: The Cardiovascular System / Heart

Define medical vocabulary components related to the cardiovascular system and the heart.

Question 1 of 16
The root atrion means "hall." Which structure is named from this root?
  • A. Ventricle
  • B. Auricle
  • C. Atrium
  • D. Septum
  • E. Apex
Question 2 of 16
The root ventricle derives from the Latin word meaning:
  • A. Little wall
  • B. Little belly
  • C. Entry chamber
  • D. Half moon
  • E. Little ear
Question 3 of 16
The root auris means "ear." Which cardiac structure is named from this root because of its ear-like shape?
Question 4 of 16
The prefix bi- means "two." A valve is called bicuspid because it has:
  • A. Two papillary muscles
  • B. Two chordae tendineae
  • C. Two cusps (flaps)
  • D. Two chambers
  • E. Two layers of connective tissue
Question 5 of 16
The root bradys means "slow." A patient with a heart rate below 60 bpm is said to have:
Question 6 of 16
The root tachys means "swift." A heart rate of 100 bpm or more is called:
Question 7 of 16
The root luna means "moon." The pulmonary and aortic valves are called semilunar because their cusps are shaped like:
  • A. Full moons
  • B. Half-moons (crescents)
  • C. Stars
  • D. Triangles
  • E. Discs
Question 8 of 16
The root mitre refers to "a bishop's hat." The left AV valve is called the mitral valve because its shape resembles:
  • A. A crescent
  • B. A nipple
  • C. A wall
  • D. A bishop's hat
  • E. A point
Question 9 of 16
The root septum means "wall." Which two structures are separated by septa in the heart?
A. The two atria are separated by the interatrial septum
B. The ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum
C. The pericardial layers are separated by the cardiac septum
D. The coronary arteries are separated by a vascular septum
E. The valves are separated by the fibrous septum
Question 10 of 16
The root papilla means "nipple-shaped elevation." Papillary muscles are cone-shaped projections in the ventricle that connect to:
Question 11 of 16
The root diastole means "expansion." During diastole, the heart chamber:
  • A. Contracts and ejects blood
  • B. Reaches maximum pressure
  • C. Relaxes and fills with blood
  • D. Closes its semilunar valves
  • E. Depolarizes rapidly
Question 12 of 16
The root systole means "a drawing together." During systole, the heart chamber:
  • A. Contracts and squeezes blood into the next chamber or vessel
  • B. Expands to receive incoming blood
  • C. Repolarizes
  • D. Reduces pressure to open AV valves
  • E. Passively fills from venous return
Question 13 of 16
The root anastomosis means "outlet." Coronary anastomoses are interconnections between coronary arteries that ensure:
  • A. Blood is directed only through one pathway at a time
  • B. Alternate pathways exist for the blood supply to reach cardiac muscle
  • C. The coronary sinus drains into the left atrium
  • D. Ventricular pressures remain stable
  • E. The SA node receives a dedicated blood supply
Question 14 of 16
The root -gram means "record." An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a recording of:
Question 15 of 16
The prefix tri- means "three." The tricuspid valve is named for having three:
Question 16 of 16
The root cuspis means "point." The cusps of AV valves are flaps of fibrous tissue that:
  • A. Generate action potentials in the nodal cells
  • B. Provide structural support to the myocardium
  • C. Store calcium ions during diastole
  • D. Ensure one-way blood flow from atria into ventricles
  • E. Connect the AV node to the bundle branches

OBJ 2684 — Location and General Features of the Heart

Identify the location and general features of the heart.

Question 1 of 8
The heart lies near the anterior chest wall, directly behind which bony structure?
Question 2 of 8
The heart is enclosed by which connective tissue mass located between the two pleural cavities?
  • A. Pleura
  • B. Peritoneum
  • C. Mediastinum
  • D. Pericardium
  • E. Diaphragm
Question 3 of 8
Because the heart is rotated slightly toward the left, the anterior surface of the heart is primarily composed of which two chambers?
  • A. Left atrium and left ventricle
  • B. Right atrium and right ventricle
  • C. Left atrium and right ventricle
  • D. Right atrium and left ventricle
  • E. Both atria only
Question 4 of 8
The deep groove that marks the boundary between the atria and the ventricles on the external surface of the heart is the:
Question 5 of 8
The great vessels connect to the heart at the superior end called the base. The inferior, pointed tip is called the:
Question 6 of 8
When an atrium is not filled with blood, its outer portion deflates into a lumpy, wrinkled flap. This structure is called the:
  • A. Sulcus
  • B. Trabeculae carneae
  • C. Fossa ovalis
  • D. Auricle
  • E. Cusp
Question 7 of 8
Which of the following structures or tissues are found in the mediastinum? Select all that apply.
A. Heart
B. Great vessels
C. Trachea
D. Thymus
E. Stomach
Question 8 of 8
The heart beats approximately 100,000 times per day and pumps roughly how many liters of blood?
  • A. 800 liters
  • B. 1,000 liters
  • C. 8,000 liters
  • D. 80 liters
  • E. 500 liters

OBJ 2685 — Layers of the Heart Wall

Identify the three layers of the heart wall and their characteristics.

Question 1 of 8
From outer to inner, the three layers of the heart wall are:
  • A. Epicardium → myocardium → endocardium
  • B. Endocardium → myocardium → epicardium
  • C. Myocardium → epicardium → endocardium
  • D. Pericardium → epicardium → myocardium
  • E. Epicardium → endocardium → myocardium
Question 2 of 8
The epicardium is also known by which other name?
Question 3 of 8
The myocardium is the muscular wall of the heart. Its cardiac muscle tissue forms bands that wrap around the atria and spiral into the walls of the ventricles. This arrangement results in which type of contractions?
  • A. Slow, weak contractions that preserve myocardial oxygen
  • B. Tetanic contractions that maximize stroke volume
  • C. Squeezing and twisting contractions that increase pumping efficiency
  • D. Isometric contractions that do not change chamber volume
  • E. Peristaltic contractions directed toward the apex
Question 4 of 8
The inner surface of the heart — including the heart valves — is lined by a simple squamous epithelium called the:
Question 5 of 8
At intercalated discs, cardiac muscle cells are held together by desmosomes and linked by gap junctions. What specific function do the gap junctions serve?
  • A. Convey the mechanical force of contraction from cell to cell
  • B. Anchor the cell to the extracellular matrix
  • C. Store calcium ions between contractions
  • D. Allow ions and small molecules to pass between cells so action potentials travel rapidly from cell to cell
  • E. Regulate ATP production in the mitochondria
Question 6 of 8
The connective tissues of the heart serve three functions. Which of the following are correct? Select all that apply.
A. Support cardiac muscle fibers, blood vessels, and nerves of the myocardium
B. Add strength and prevent overexpansion of the heart
C. Help the heart return to normal shape after contractions
D. Generate the electrical impulse that initiates each heartbeat
E. Produce pericardial fluid to lubricate the heart surface
Question 7 of 8
The pericardial sac is made of a dense network of collagen fibers. What is the function of this sac?
  • A. It generates the force that initiates atrial contraction
  • B. It stabilizes the positions of the pericardium, heart, and associated vessels in the mediastinum
  • C. It insulates the atria from the ventricles electrically
  • D. It is the site of coronary artery origin
  • E. It stores oxygenated blood between beats
Question 8 of 8
Cardiac muscle cells are almost totally dependent on aerobic metabolism. Which two energy reserves do they store to support this metabolic demand?
A. Glycogen
B. Lipids
C. Creatine phosphate
D. Lactic acid
E. ATP synthase

OBJ 2686 — Blood Flow Through the Heart

Trace blood flow through the heart: major vessels, chambers, and valves.

Question 1 of 10
Blood returning from the systemic circuit enters the right atrium through which vessels? Select all that apply.
A. Superior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Coronary sinus
D. Pulmonary veins
E. Aorta
Question 2 of 10
Blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle through the right AV valve. This valve is also called the:
Question 3 of 10
Blood leaving the right ventricle enters the pulmonary circuit. Which valve guards the entrance to the pulmonary trunk?
  • A. Aortic semilunar valve
  • B. Tricuspid valve
  • C. Pulmonary semilunar valve
  • D. Mitral valve
  • E. Bicuspid valve
Question 4 of 10
After gas exchange in the lungs, oxygenated blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins and enters the:
  • A. Right atrium
  • B. Right ventricle
  • C. Left atrium
  • D. Left ventricle
  • E. Coronary sinus
Question 5 of 10
Blood moves from the left atrium into the left ventricle through the left AV valve. This valve has two cusps and is also called the bicuspid valve or:
Question 6 of 10
Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through the aortic semilunar valve and enters the systemic circuit via the:
Question 7 of 10
The wall of the left ventricle must generate four to six times more pressure than the right ventricle. Why?
  • A. It receives more blood per beat than the right ventricle
  • B. It supplies the pulmonary circuit, which is longer
  • C. It has a thinner wall that must compensate with higher pressure
  • D. It must push blood around the entire systemic circuit, which is far more resistant than the pulmonary circuit
  • E. It contains more myoglobin and therefore contracts more forcefully
Question 8 of 10
The chordae tendineae and papillary muscles prevent the AV valve cusps from swinging into the atrium during ventricular contraction. If papillary muscles fail to contract, what happens?
  • A. The semilunar valves will also fail to open
  • B. Blood regurgitates back into the atrium because the cusps are not held in place
  • C. The right ventricle compensates by increasing stroke volume
  • D. Blood flow into the pulmonary trunk increases
  • E. The fossa ovalis reopens to equalize pressures
Question 9 of 10
The semilunar valves do not require muscular bracing like the AV valves. When the semilunar valves close, their three cusps support each other to prevent backflow. They support each other like:
  • A. A drawbridge
  • B. A lever arm
  • C. The legs of a tripod
  • D. A pair of hinges
  • E. A bellows
Question 10 of 10
The cardiac skeleton physically isolates the atrial muscle tissue from the ventricular muscle tissue. Why is this isolation clinically important?
  • A. It prevents the coronary arteries from receiving excessive blood flow
  • B. It ensures the semilunar valves do not open during diastole
  • C. It allows the myocardium to function without autonomic input
  • D. It allows the timing of ventricular contraction relative to atrial contraction to be precisely controlled through the AV node
  • E. It prevents pericardial fluid from entering the chambers

OBJ 2687 — Action Potentials: Skeletal vs. Cardiac Muscle

Identify the differences in action potentials and twitch contractions between skeletal and cardiac muscle.

Question 1 of 8
Step 1 of a cardiac action potential is rapid depolarization. What ion and what type of channel cause this?
  • A. Sodium ions enter through voltage-gated sodium channels
  • B. Calcium ions enter through voltage-gated calcium channels
  • C. Potassium ions exit through leak channels
  • D. Chloride ions enter through ligand-gated channels
  • E. Sodium ions exit through ATP-dependent pumps
Question 2 of 8
During the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential, voltage-gated calcium channels open and extracellular calcium enters. The plateau serves two purposes — what are they?
A. Delays repolarization by maintaining transmembrane potential near 0 mV
B. Initiates contraction by raising intracellular calcium
C. Opens the AV node to allow signal transmission
D. Closes the pulmonary semilunar valve
E. Activates the sodium-potassium pump
Question 3 of 8
Repolarization in a cardiac muscle cell is caused by which ion movement?
  • A. Calcium ions re-entering the cell
  • B. Sodium ions exiting through voltage-gated channels
  • C. Potassium ions rushing out of the cell as calcium channels close
  • D. Chloride ions entering the cell
  • E. ATP hydrolysis driving potassium inward
Question 4 of 8
A skeletal muscle action potential lasts approximately 10 milliseconds. How long does the cardiac muscle cell action potential last?
  • A. 10–20 milliseconds
  • B. 50–75 milliseconds
  • C. 100–150 milliseconds
  • D. 250–300 milliseconds
  • E. 500–600 milliseconds
Question 5 of 8
In skeletal muscle, twitches can stack on top of each other until tension reaches a sustained peak called tetanus. Why can tetanus NOT occur in cardiac muscle?
  • A. Cardiac muscle has no troponin and cannot bind calcium
  • B. Cardiac muscle receives too little neural stimulation
  • C. The refractory period of cardiac muscle lasts until relaxation is already underway, so twitches cannot summate
  • D. Cardiac sarcomeres are too short to support sustained contraction
  • E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum reclaims calcium too quickly
Question 6 of 8
Due to its long refractory period, a normal cardiac muscle cell is limited to a maximum contraction rate of approximately:
  • A. 60 contractions per minute
  • B. 100 contractions per minute
  • C. 200 contractions per minute
  • D. 300 contractions per minute
  • E. 400 contractions per minute
Question 7 of 8
In a cardiac muscle cell, extracellular calcium that enters during the plateau phase triggers an additional release of calcium from which intracellular structure?
Question 8 of 8
A patient is given a calcium channel blocker that prevents extracellular calcium from entering cardiac muscle cells. Based on how the cardiac action potential works, which phase would be most directly eliminated or shortened?
  • A. Rapid depolarization — sodium influx would stop
  • B. Repolarization — potassium efflux would be blocked
  • C. The plateau — calcium entry that maintains near-zero transmembrane potential would be blocked, shortening or eliminating the plateau and reducing contraction force
  • D. The resting potential — the cell would remain permanently depolarized
  • E. Automaticity — the SA node would stop firing

OBJ 2688 — The Conducting System of the Heart

Identify the components and functions of the cardiac conducting system.

Question 1 of 9
The property that allows cardiac muscle tissue to contract on its own without neural or hormonal stimulation is called:
Question 2 of 9
The normal cardiac pacemaker is located in the sinoatrial (SA) node. Where exactly in the heart is the SA node found?
  • A. In the interventricular septum near the apex
  • B. In the posterior wall of the right atrium near the entrance of the superior vena cava
  • C. In the floor of the left atrium near the pulmonary veins
  • D. In the AV bundle between the two ventricles
  • E. Along the inner wall of the left ventricle near the Purkinje fibers
Question 3 of 9
SA node pacemaker cells normally generate 70–80 action potentials per minute. If the SA node fails and the AV node takes over as the backup pacemaker, what heart rate would result?
  • A. 70–80 bpm — same as the SA node
  • B. 40–60 bpm — the AV node depolarizes more slowly
  • C. 100–120 bpm — the AV node fires faster without SA inhibition
  • D. 0 bpm — the heart cannot function without SA node input
  • E. 200 bpm — the ventricular cells take over and fire at maximum rate
Question 4 of 9
Trace the correct sequence of the conducting system from the SA node to the ventricular myocardium.
  • A. SA node → AV node → AV bundle → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers
  • B. SA node → bundle branches → AV node → Purkinje fibers → AV bundle
  • C. AV node → SA node → AV bundle → Purkinje fibers → bundle branches
  • D. SA node → Purkinje fibers → AV node → bundle branches → AV bundle
  • E. SA node → AV bundle → AV node → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers
Question 5 of 9
There is a 100-millisecond delay at the AV node before the impulse continues to the AV bundle. What is the clinical importance of this delay?
  • A. It allows the Purkinje fibers time to reset their refractory period
  • B. It prevents the SA node from sending a second impulse
  • C. It ensures the atria contract and blood moves into the ventricles before the ventricles are stimulated to contract
  • D. It generates the QRS complex on the electrocardiogram
  • E. It allows coronary artery filling to occur before systole
Question 6 of 9
The AV bundle is also known as the:
Question 7 of 9
An abnormal conducting cell or ventricular muscle cell that generates action potentials rapidly enough to override the SA or AV node is called an:
Question 8 of 9
On the electrocardiogram, the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The T wave represents:
  • A. Atrial repolarization
  • B. Ventricular depolarization
  • C. AV node delay
  • D. Ventricular repolarization
  • E. Purkinje fiber activation
Question 9 of 9
Extending the P–R interval on an ECG to more than 200 milliseconds is clinically significant because it can indicate:
  • A. Decreased ventricular mass
  • B. Ventricular hypertrophy
  • C. Atrial repolarization occurring simultaneously with depolarization
  • D. Damage to the conducting pathways or AV node
  • E. SA node firing at an abnormally fast rate

OBJ 2689 — The Cardiac Cycle and Heart Sounds

Communicate the events of the cardiac cycle and relate heart sounds to specific events.

Question 1 of 8
The cardiac cycle begins with atrial systole. At the start of a cycle, the atria are filled with blood and the ventricles are partially filled. What does atrial systole accomplish?
  • A. It closes the AV valves to prevent backflow
  • B. It opens the semilunar valves to eject blood into the arterial trunks
  • C. It contracts the atria to completely fill the ventricles with blood
  • D. It repolarizes the ventricular myocardium
  • E. It generates the P wave on the ECG during the same event as valve closure
Question 2 of 8
As ventricular systole begins, rising ventricular pressure closes the AV valves. But blood cannot yet enter the arterial trunks. What must happen before the semilunar valves open?
  • A. The atria must complete their repolarization
  • B. The papillary muscles must fully relax
  • C. The pericardial fluid pressure must equalize
  • D. Ventricular pressure must rise above the pressure already in the arterial trunks
  • E. The coronary sinus must drain completely
Question 3 of 8
Ventricular systole in a resting adult lasts approximately how long?
  • A. 100 milliseconds
  • B. 175 milliseconds
  • C. 270 milliseconds
  • D. 400 milliseconds
  • E. 800 milliseconds
Question 4 of 8
When ventricular diastole begins, ventricular pressure falls below arterial pressure. This closes the semilunar valves. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure, which valves open?
Question 5 of 8
By the time the next atrial systole begins, the ventricles are roughly what percentage filled with blood?
  • A. 30 percent
  • B. 50 percent
  • C. 70 percent
  • D. 90 percent
  • E. 100 percent
Question 6 of 8
The first heart sound ("lubb") is produced by which specific event?
  • A. The semilunar valves closing at the start of diastole
  • B. The AV valves closing and the semilunar valves opening at the start of ventricular systole
  • C. Blood flowing from the atria into the relaxed ventricles
  • D. Atrial contraction pushing blood into the ventricles
  • E. The Purkinje fibers depolarizing the ventricular myocardium
Question 7 of 8
The second heart sound ("dupp") occurs at the beginning of ventricular diastole. What causes it?
  • A. The AV valves opening
  • B. The AV valves closing
  • C. Atrial systole beginning
  • D. The semilunar valves closing
  • E. Blood entering the coronary arteries
Question 8 of 8
During ventricular diastole — late phase — all four chambers are relaxed and the ventricles fill passively. If the atria were so severely damaged they could no longer function, would the person survive? Why?
  • A. Yes — because the ventricles are already 70% filled passively before atrial systole contributes, so atrial contraction makes a relatively minor contribution to ventricular volume
  • B. No — because ventricular filling depends entirely on atrial contraction to push blood across the AV valves
  • C. No — because the SA node is located in the right atrium and would stop the entire conducting system
  • D. Yes — because the semilunar valves can redirect blood flow around the non-functional atria
  • E. Only if ventricular systole is also reduced proportionally

OBJ 2690 — Stroke Volume and Cardiac Output

Define stroke volume and cardiac output and identify the factors that influence these values.

Question 1 of 8
The formula for cardiac output is CO = HR × SV. If heart rate is 75 bpm and stroke volume is 80 mL per beat, what is the cardiac output?
  • A. 750 mL/min
  • B. 3,000 mL/min
  • C. 5,000 mL/min
  • D. 6,000 mL/min
  • E. 9,000 mL/min
Question 2 of 8
The Frank–Starling principle states that the greater the volume of blood entering the ventricles (stretching the myocardium), the more powerful the contraction and the greater the stroke volume. This is summarized as:
  • A. More resistance = more output
  • B. Faster rate = lower volume
  • C. Less stretch = greater force
  • D. More in = more out
  • E. Higher rate = higher stroke volume
Question 3 of 8
The atrial reflex (Bainbridge reflex) adjusts heart rate in response to increased venous return. What is the mechanism?
  • A. Blood entering the right atrium activates parasympathetic fibers, slowing the SA node
  • B. Blood entering the right atrium stretches stretch receptors in the atrial walls, triggering increased sympathetic activity, which causes the SA node to depolarize faster and raises heart rate
  • C. Blood entering the left ventricle stimulates baroreceptors to inhibit the cardioacceleratory center
  • D. Stretch of the ventricular wall directly opens voltage-gated sodium channels in the SA node
  • E. Venous pressure directly pushes on the AV node to increase its firing rate
Question 4 of 8
Norepinephrine released by sympathetic neurons increases stroke volume. Acetylcholine released by parasympathetic neurons decreases it. What is the primary site of the greatest reduction in contractile force from parasympathetic stimulation?
  • A. The left ventricle, which has the densest parasympathetic innervation
  • B. The right ventricle
  • C. The atria, because parasympathetic innervation of the ventricles is relatively limited
  • D. The Purkinje fibers
  • E. The coronary arteries
Question 5 of 8
Which hormones increase both heart rate AND force of contraction? Select all that apply.
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine (from adrenal medullae)
C. Thyroid hormones
D. Glucagon
E. Acetylcholine
Question 6 of 8
Hypercalcemia (elevated extracellular calcium) causes cardiac muscle contractions to become extremely excitable, powerful, and prolonged. In extreme cases, the heart can go into extended contraction. What is this fatal condition called?
  • A. Cardiac tamponade
  • B. Ventricular fibrillation
  • C. Bradycardia
  • D. Extended state of contraction (tetany of the heart)
  • E. Heart block
Question 7 of 8
Why is a very rapid heart rate potentially dangerous even though it increases rate?
  • A. As heart rate rises, ventricular filling time (diastole) shortens, so the ventricles do not fill adequately and stroke volume falls, reducing actual cardiac output
  • B. A fast rate blocks norepinephrine receptors in the SA node
  • C. A fast rate causes the cardiac skeleton to stiffen and reduce valve function
  • D. A fast rate causes hypercalcemia in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • E. A fast rate activates the cardioinhibitory center to send inhibitory signals
Question 8 of 8
The cardiac centers in which brainstem structure contain both the cardioacceleratory center (sympathetic) and the cardioinhibitory center (parasympathetic)?

★ Final Score — SOMAPL1C: The Heart

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SOMAPL1D · Ch 13
SOMAPL1B1C Study Guide
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Ch. 11 — Blood

Medical Vocabulary — Blood (Ch. 11)

Define the medical vocabulary components related to the cardiovascular system: blood.

Root / TermMeaningClinical Example
agglutininsgluingagglutinization (RBC clumping in transfusion reaction)
embolosplugembolus (drifting clot blocking a vessel)
erythrosrederythrocyte (red blood cell)
haimabloodhemostasis (halting blood loss)
hypo- / oxy-below / presence of oxygenhypoxia (low tissue oxygen levels)
karyonnucleusmegakaryocyte (giant nucleus cell → platelets)
leukoswhiteleukocyte (white blood cell)
megasbigmegakaryocyte
myelosmarrowmyeloid tissue (red bone marrow)
-osiscondition / increaseleukocytosis (excess WBCs)
peniapoverty / deficiencyleukopenia (too few WBCs)
poiesismakinghemopoiesis (blood cell production)
puncturaa piercingvenipuncture (blood draw from vein)
stasishalthemostasis (stopping bleeding)
thrombosclotthrombocyte (platelet)
venaveinvenipuncture

Components and Major Functions of Blood

Identify the important components and major functions of blood.

Blood is a specialized fluid connective tissue — cells suspended in a fluid matrix called plasma. Whole blood = plasma + formed elements.

ComponentApproximate % of Whole Blood
Plasma~55%
Formed elements (RBCs, WBCs, platelets)~45%
  1. Transport — dissolved gases (O₂, CO₂), nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes
  2. Regulate pH and ion composition — diffusion between blood and interstitial fluid eliminates local ion imbalances; blood absorbs and neutralizes acids such as lactic acid
  3. Restrict fluid losses — clotting enzymes and factors respond to vessel damage and initiate blood clotting
  4. Defend against toxins and pathogens — transports WBCs, delivers antibodies to infection sites
  5. Stabilize body temperature — absorbs heat from active skeletal muscles; redirects warm blood to or away from skin surface
PropertyValue
Temperature~38°C (100.4°F) — slightly above body temperature
Viscosity5× that of water — from dissolved proteins and formed elements
pH7.35–7.45 (slightly alkaline)
Adult volumeMales: 5–6 L  |  Females: 4–5 L
Blood Collection — Venipuncture

Fresh blood is most commonly drawn from the median cubital vein (anterior elbow surface). Superficial veins are easy to locate, vein walls are thin, and low venous pressure means the puncture seals quickly.

Plasma — Composition and Functions

Communicate the composition and functions of plasma.

Plasma makes up ~55% of whole blood volume. It is ~92% water. The remaining 8% includes plasma proteins, electrolytes, organic nutrients, and organic wastes.

Protein% of Plasma ProteinsFunction
Albumins~60%Major contributors to plasma osmotic pressure; bind and transport lipids
Globulins~35%Antibodies (immunoglobulins) attack pathogens; transport globulins bind ions, hormones, small molecules; lipoproteins transport insoluble lipids
Fibrinogen~4%Blood clotting — converts to insoluble fibrin strands that form the clot framework

The liver synthesizes more than 90% of all plasma proteins, including all albumins, all fibrinogen, and most globulins. Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are produced by plasma cells of the lymphatic system.

  • Electrolytes — Na⁺, K⁺, Ca²⁺, Mg²⁺, Cl⁻, HCO₃⁻, HPO₄²⁻, SO₄²⁻; essential for vital cellular activities
  • Organic nutrients — glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, cholesterol, vitamins; used for ATP production, growth, and maintenance
  • Organic wastes — urea, uric acid, creatinine, bilirubin, ammonium ions; carried to sites of breakdown or excretion
Plasma vs. Serum

When fibrinogen and other clotting proteins are removed from plasma (as happens when a blood sample clots), the remaining fluid is called serum. Serum has the same composition as plasma minus the clotting proteins.

Origin and Production of Formed Elements (Hemopoiesis)

Communicate the origin and production of the formed elements in blood.

Hemopoiesis is the process by which all formed elements are produced. In adults, it occurs exclusively in red bone marrow (myeloid tissue) located in the vertebrae, sternum, ribs, scapulae, pelvis, and proximal limb bones.

All formed elements arise from divisions of hemocytoblasts — multipotent stem cells present in red bone marrow.

Stem Cell LineFormed Elements Produced
Myeloid stem cellsRed blood cells, platelets, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes
Lymphoid stem cellsLymphocytes (migrate to thymus, spleen, lymph nodes for development)
  • Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) — hormones that regulate production of WBCs other than lymphocytes; four CSFs identified, each targeting specific stem cell lines
  • Erythropoietin (EPO) — released by the kidneys when tissue oxygen (O₂) is low; stimulates RBC production specifically
  • Thymosins — from the thymus gland; promote differentiation of T-cell lymphocytes in immature individuals
Yellow Bone Marrow Reserve

Areas not producing blood cells contain yellow bone marrow (fatty tissue). Under extreme stimulation — severe sustained blood loss — yellow marrow can convert to red marrow to increase RBC formation rate.

Red Blood Cells — Characteristics and Functions

Communicate the characteristics and functions of red blood cells, hemoglobin structure and function, RBC recycling, and erythropoiesis.

  • Biconcave disc — large surface area to volume ratio maximizes diffusion rate between cytoplasm and surrounding plasma; enables flexing through narrow capillaries
  • No nucleus, no ribosomes, no mitochondria after maturation — cannot divide or synthesize proteins
  • Obtain energy by anaerobic metabolism only — ensures O₂ carried to peripheral tissues is not "stolen" by the RBC's own mitochondria
  • Life span: ~120 days; ~1% replaced daily; ~3 million new RBCs enter circulation per second

The hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements (essentially RBCs). Normal values: males avg 46% (range 40–54), females avg 42% (range 37–47). Androgens stimulate RBC production; estrogens do not — explaining the sex difference.

Hemoglobin makes up >95% of RBC intracellular proteins. Each Hb molecule has 4 globular protein subunits, each containing one heme molecule with an iron ion (Fe²⁺) that reversibly binds one O₂ molecule.

LocationHemoglobin StateBlood Color
Lungs (high O₂)Oxyhemoglobin — all heme sites occupied by O₂Bright red
Peripheral tissues (low O₂, high CO₂)Deoxyhemoglobin — O₂ released; globin binds CO₂Dark red / burgundy
  1. Macrophages in liver, spleen, and bone marrow engulf old/damaged RBCs before they hemolyze (90% of RBCs); remaining 10% hemolyze in the bloodstream
  2. Globin chains → broken into amino acids → metabolized by macrophage or recycled into bloodstream
  3. Heme → iron stripped out → heme ring converted to biliverdin (green pigment) → then to bilirubin (orange-yellow pigment) → released into bloodstream → bound to albumin → liver → excreted in bile → large intestine → bacteria convert to urobilins/stercobilins (color of feces and urine)
  4. Iron (Fe²⁺) → stored in macrophage OR released into bloodstream bound to transferrin (plasma transport protein) → developing RBCs in red bone marrow absorb iron and amino acids to synthesize new Hb
Clinical Link — Jaundice

If bile ducts are blocked (e.g., by gallstones), bilirubin diffuses into peripheral tissues, causing yellow coloration of the skin and eyes — jaundice.

RBC formation occurs only in red bone marrow. Developmental sequence: hemocytoblast → myeloid stem cell → proerythroblast → erythroblasts (actively synthesizing Hb) → erythroblast ejects nucleus → reticulocyte → enters bloodstream → matures into erythrocyte within 24 hours.

EPO regulation loop: tissue hypoxia → kidneys release EPO → EPO stimulates erythroblast division rate AND accelerates hemoglobin synthesis → more RBCs → improved O₂ delivery → hypoxia resolved.

Requirements for normal erythropoiesis: amino acids, iron, vitamin B₁₂ (requires intrinsic factor from stomach for absorption), vitamin B₆, folic acid. Deficiency of B₁₂ → pernicious anemia.

Blood Types — ABO and Rh Systems

Communicate the factors which determine a person's blood type and why blood types are important.

Blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific surface antigens (agglutinogens) on RBC membranes. Genetic makeup determines which antigens appear. RBCs have at least 50 surface antigen types; three are clinically most important: A, B, and Rh (D).

Blood TypeAntigens on RBCsAntibodies in PlasmaU.S. Prevalence (approx.)
A+A onlyAnti-B34%
B+B onlyAnti-A9%
AB+A and BNeither3%
O+NeitherBoth anti-A and anti-B38%

Rh positive (Rh+) = Rh antigen present on RBCs. Rh negative (Rh−) = absent. Anti-Rh antibodies do NOT normally exist in Rh− plasma — they only form after sensitization (exposure to Rh+ blood through transfusion or pregnancy).

When incompatible blood is transfused, antibodies in the recipient's plasma bind to antigens on donated RBCs → agglutination (clumping) → hemolysis → clumps and fragments plug small vessels in kidneys, lungs, heart, or brain → tissue damage or death.

In emergencies, Type O− blood is used as a universal donor because O− RBCs lack A, B, and Rh antigens — cannot trigger common cross-reactions.

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) — Erythroblastosis Fetalis

An Rh− mother carrying an Rh+ fetus: delivery exposes the mother to fetal Rh antigens → she produces anti-Rh antibodies. A second Rh+ pregnancy → massive anti-Rh antibody response → antibodies cross placenta → attack and hemolyze fetal RBCs → severe fetal anemia → immature RBCs (erythroblasts) flood circulation → erythroblastosis fetalis.

White Blood Cells — Types, Structures, Functions

Identify the various white blood cells on the basis of their structures and functions.

WBCs (leukocytes) are larger than RBCs, have a nucleus, and lack hemoglobin. All WBCs share four functional characteristics: amoeboid movement (gliding through tissues), diapedesis (squeezing through capillary walls), positive chemotaxis (attracted to chemical signals from pathogens/damaged tissue), and most are phagocytic.

Normal WBC count: 6,000–9,000/μL. Circulating WBCs represent a small fraction — most are in connective tissues and lymphatic organs.

Cell% of WBCsNucleusGranulesFunction
Neutrophils50–70%2–5 lobes ("beads on a string")Neutral — don't stain stronglyFirst responders to infection; phagocytize bacteria; form pus; short life span ~10 hrs
Eosinophils2–4%2 lobesDeep red (stain with eosin)Attack antibody-coated targets; release cytotoxic enzymes + nitric oxide; numbers spike in parasitic infection and allergic reactions
Basophils<1%Bilobed (obscured)Deep purple-blue (basic dyes)Migrate to injury sites; release histamine (enhances inflammation) and heparin (prevents clotting); attract eosinophils and other basophils
Cell% of WBCsNucleusFunction
Monocytes2–8%Large, kidney-bean or oval shapedLargest WBC; circulate ~24 hrs then enter tissues to become free macrophages; aggressive phagocytes; release chemicals that attract other phagocytes and fibroblasts; fibroblasts produce scar tissue to wall off injured areas
Lymphocytes20–40%Large nucleus; thin cytoplasm haloSpecific defenses — some attack foreign/abnormal cells directly (T cells); others secrete antibodies (B cells/plasma cells); survive months to decades
TermMeaningSignificance
Differential countNumber of each WBC type per 100 WBCsReveals infections, inflammation, allergies, cancer
LeukopeniaReduced WBC numbersImpaired immune defense
LeukocytosisExcessive WBC numbersInfection, inflammation; extreme (>100,000/μL) → leukemia

Hemostasis — Mechanisms Reducing Blood Loss

Communicate the mechanisms that reduce blood loss after an injury.

Hemostasis (haima = blood + stasis = halt) is the process that stops bleeding and prevents fluid loss through damaged vessel walls, while establishing a framework for tissue repair. It consists of three overlapping phases.

Vessel wall damage triggers contraction of smooth muscle in the vessel wall → vascular spasm → vessel diameter decreases → blood flow slows or stops. Endothelial cells at the injury site become "sticky" — in small capillaries, cells can adhere and block the opening completely.

Platelets attach to sticky endothelium and exposed collagen fibers of the damaged vessel → platelets aggregate and stick to each other → platelet plug forms. If damage is minor, the platelet plug alone may seal the break. Platelets are derived from megakaryocytes in red bone marrow and circulate for 9–12 days.

A cascade of clotting factor activations converts circulating fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin. Fibrin strands trap RBCs and platelets → blood clot seals the damaged vessel.

PathwayTriggerSpeedRole
Extrinsic pathwayTissue factor released by damaged endothelium + Ca²⁺ + Factor VIIFast (~15 sec)Initiates clotting rapidly after injury
Intrinsic pathwayProenzymes exposed to collagen at injury site + platelet factorSlowerReinforces and enlarges the clot
Common pathwayBoth extrinsic and intrinsic pathways activate Factor XFactor X → prothrombinase → prothrombin → thrombin → fibrinogen → fibrin

Both calcium ions and vitamin K are required throughout the clotting cascade. Vitamin K deficiency disables the common pathway. Roughly half of required vitamin K comes from diet; the rest is synthesized by intestinal bacteria.

Clot retraction — platelets contract after the fibrin network forms, pulling torn vessel edges closer together and reducing the area of damage.

Fibrinolysis — as tissue repairs proceed, thrombin and t-PA (tissue plasminogen activator, released by damaged tissue) activate plasminogen → plasmin → digests fibrin strands → clot dissolves.

Ch. 12 — The Heart

Medical Vocabulary — The Heart (Ch. 12)

Define the medical vocabulary components related to the cardiovascular system: the heart.

Root / TermMeaningClinical Example
anastomosisoutlet / interconnectionanastomoses (interconnections between coronary arteries)
atrionhall / entry chamberatrium (entry chamber of heart)
aurisearauricle (ear-shaped atrial appendage)
bi-twobicuspid valve (two cusps — the mitral valve)
bradysslowbradycardia (heart rate <60 bpm)
cuspispointbicuspid / tricuspid valve (cusps = flaps)
diastoleexpansion / relaxationdiastole (relaxation and filling phase)
-gramrecordelectrocardiogram (ECG — record of cardiac electrical events)
lunamoonsemilunar valve (half-moon shaped cusps)
mitrebishop's hatmitral valve (left AV valve = bicuspid)
papillanipple-shaped elevationpapillary muscles (anchor chordae tendineae)
semi-halfsemilunar valve (pulmonary and aortic)
septumwall / partitioninteratrial septum, interventricular septum
systoledrawing together / contractionsystole (contraction phase of cardiac cycle)
tachysswifttachycardia (heart rate >100 bpm)
tri-threetricuspid valve (three cusps — right AV valve)
ventriclelittle bellyventricle (pumping chamber)

Heart Location and General Features

Identify the location and general features of the heart.

The heart lies in the mediastinum — the connective tissue mass between the two pleural cavities — directly behind the sternum on the anterior chest wall. It is roughly the size of a clenched fist (~12.5 cm base to apex) and sits at an angle rotated left, so the anterior surface is primarily right atrium and right ventricle.

The heart is surrounded by the pericardial cavity, lined by the pericardium — a serous membrane with two layers:

  • Visceral pericardium (epicardium) — covers the outer heart surface
  • Parietal pericardium — lines the inner surface of the pericardial sac surrounding the heart

Pericardial fluid between these layers acts as a lubricant, reducing friction as the heart beats.

LandmarkLocation / Significance
BaseSuperior — where great vessels attach
ApexInferior pointed tip
Coronary sulcusDeep groove (filled with fat) marking atria–ventricle boundary; contains coronary arteries and veins
Anterior interventricular sulcusMarks boundary between left and right ventricles (anterior surface)
Posterior interventricular sulcusMarks boundary between left and right ventricles (posterior surface)
AuriclesWrinkled flap-like appendages on atria when not fully filled with blood

Right atrium → right ventricle (pulmonary circuit) | Left atrium → left ventricle (systemic circuit). Atria and ventricles are separated internally by the interatrial septum and interventricular septum respectively.

The left and right coronary arteries originate at the aortic sinuses at the base of the aorta — the highest pressure point in the systemic circuit, ensuring constant flow to active cardiac muscle. Arterial anastomoses (interconnections) between coronary branches provide alternate flow paths if one branch is compromised. Venous drainage → great and middle cardiac veins → coronary sinus → right atrium.

Layers of the Heart Wall

Identify the layers of the heart wall.

LayerTissue CompositionNotes
Epicardium (visceral pericardium)Exposed epithelium + underlying areolar tissueCovers outer heart surface; continuous with pericardial fluid-producing serous membrane
MyocardiumCardiac muscle tissue + blood vessels + nervesThickest layer; muscle bands wrap around atria and spiral into ventricular walls — creates squeezing/twisting contraction for efficient pumping
EndocardiumSimple squamous epithelium (endothelium) + areolar tissueLines all inner surfaces including valve surfaces; continuous with the endothelium of attached great vessels
  • Smaller than skeletal muscle fibers; single centrally located nucleus
  • Abundant mitochondria and myoglobin — almost totally dependent on aerobic metabolism
  • Energy reserves stored as glycogen and lipids
  • Connected at intercalated discs:
    • Desmosomes — interlock membranes; transmit contractile force cell-to-cell
    • Gap junctions — allow ion and small molecule movement; enable action potentials to spread rapidly from cell to cell

Dense bands of tough elastic connective tissue encircle the bases of the pulmonary trunk, aorta, and all four heart valves. Functions: stabilizes valve positions; provides structural support; electrically isolates atrial muscle from ventricular muscle — critical because it means the timing of ventricular contraction relative to atrial contraction can be precisely controlled through the AV node.

Blood Flow Through the Heart

Communicate the flow of blood through the heart, identifying the major blood vessels, chambers, and heart valves.

  1. Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus → deliver deoxygenated systemic blood to the right atrium
  2. Right atrium → through the tricuspid valve (right AV valve) — 3 fibrous cusps braced by chordae tendineae and papillary muscles → right ventricle
  3. Right ventricle contracts → through the pulmonary semilunar valvepulmonary trunk → left and right pulmonary arteries → lungs (gas exchange)
  4. Pulmonary veins (2 from each lung; 4 total) → deliver oxygenated blood to left atrium
  5. Left atrium → through the bicuspid valve (mitral / left AV valve) — 2 cusps, also braced by chordae tendineae and papillary muscles → left ventricle
  6. Left ventricle contracts → through the aortic semilunar valveascending aorta → systemic circuit
Valve TypeLocationOpen WhenClosed When
AV valves (tricuspid + bicuspid/mitral)Between atria and ventriclesVentricles relaxed (diastole) — blood flows atria → ventriclesVentricles contract (systole) — chordae tendineae + papillary muscles prevent inversion into atria
Semilunar valves (pulmonary + aortic)Between ventricles and great vesselsVentricular pressure exceeds arterial pressureVentricular pressure falls — 3 symmetric cusps support each other like tripod legs, preventing backflow

The left ventricle has a massively thick muscular wall and is round in cross-section — it must generate 4–6× more pressure than the right ventricle to push blood around the entire systemic circuit. The right ventricle has a thin wall and acts like a bellows pump — it only needs to push blood to the nearby lungs through the low-resistance pulmonary circuit. Both ventricles eject equal volumes of blood per beat.

Action Potentials — Skeletal vs. Cardiac Muscle

Identify the differences in the action potentials and twitch contractions of skeletal muscle fibers and cardiac muscle cells.

FeatureSkeletal Muscle FiberCardiac Muscle Cell
Action potential duration~10 msec250–300 msec (25–30× longer)
Plateau phaseAbsent — rapid repolarization follows depolarizationPresent — Ca²⁺ entry delays repolarization for ~175 msec
Ca²⁺ source for contractionSarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) onlySR + extracellular Ca²⁺ (enters through voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels during plateau)
Refractory periodShort — ends before peak twitch tensionLong — continues until relaxation begins
Tetanus possible?Yes — twitches summate at high stimulation ratesNo — refractory period prevents summation; a heart in tetany cannot pump blood
Maximum contraction rate~500+/min~200/min
  1. Rapid Depolarization — voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open → Na⁺ rushes in → membrane potential rises to ~+30 mV → Na⁺ channels close (duration: 3–5 msec)
  2. Plateau — voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels open → Ca²⁺ enters sarcoplasm → delays repolarization (entering positive charges balance K⁺ loss) → Ca²⁺ also triggers additional Ca²⁺ release from SR → sustained contraction (duration: ~175 msec)
  3. Repolarization — Ca²⁺ channels close → K⁺ channels open → K⁺ exits → resting potential restored (duration: 75 msec)

Conducting System of the Heart

Identify the components and functions of the conducting system of the heart.

Cardiac muscle contracts on its own without neural or hormonal stimulation — a property called automaticity (autorhythmicity). The conducting system initiates and coordinates contractions so atria contract before ventricles, and ventricles contract in a wave from apex to base.

  1. SA node (sinoatrial node) — "cardiac pacemaker"; embedded in posterior right atrial wall near the SVC; pacemaker cells depolarize spontaneously at 70–80 action potentials/min → sets intrinsic heart rate (Time = 0)
  2. Internodal pathways — conducting cells in atrial walls spread impulse across both atria → atria contract together (Elapsed: 50 msec)
  3. AV node (atrioventricular node) — floor of right atrium near coronary sinus opening; impulse slows here for a 100 msec delay — critical to allow atria to finish contracting and blood to enter ventricles before ventricular contraction begins. Backup pacemaker rate: 40–60 bpm if SA node fails (Elapsed: 150 msec)
  4. AV bundle (Bundle of His) — only electrical connection between atria and ventricles (cardiac skeleton electrically isolates them everywhere else); travels down interventricular septum → divides into left and right bundle branches (Elapsed: 175 msec)
  5. Purkinje fibers — distribute impulse to all ventricular myocardium; contraction begins at apex and spreads toward base → blood pushed up and out into great vessels (Elapsed: 225 msec)
ECG FeatureElectrical EventMechanical Result
P wave (small)Atrial depolarizationAtria begin contracting ~100 msec after P wave start
QRS complex (large)Ventricular depolarization (atrial repolarization masked here)Ventricles begin contracting shortly after R wave peak
T wave (smaller)Ventricular repolarizationVentricles relax
P-R interval >200 msecProlonged AV node conductionIndicates AV node or conduction pathway damage
Q-T intervalOne complete ventricular depolarization + repolarization cycleProlonged Q-T = electrolyte disturbance, ischemia, congenital defect risk
Ectopic Pacemakers

If an abnormal conducting cell generates action potentials faster than the SA node, it can override normal pacing and disrupt the coordinated sequence — an ectopic pacemaker. Identified by ECG analysis.

The Cardiac Cycle and Heart Sounds

Communicate the events of the cardiac cycle and relate heart sounds to specific events in the cycle.

Cardiac cycle = the period from the start of one heartbeat to the start of the next. At 75 bpm, each cycle lasts ~800 msec. Systole = contraction; diastole = relaxation. Fluid moves from higher pressure to lower pressure — valves ensure one-way flow.

PhaseTimingEventsValve Status
Atrial systole0–100 msecAtria contract; force remaining blood into ventricles (ventricles already ~70% filled passively)AV valves open; semilunar valves closed
Ventricular systole — phase 1100–150 msecVentricular contraction begins; pressure rises → AV valves close; not yet enough pressure to open semilunar valvesAV valves closed; semilunar valves still closed
Ventricular systole — phase 2150–370 msecVentricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure → semilunar valves open; blood ejected into aorta and pulmonary trunkAV valves closed; semilunar valves open
Ventricular diastole — early370 msec+Ventricles relax; pressure drops below arterial pressure → semilunar valves close; blood flows into relaxed atriaAll valves briefly closed; then AV valves open as ventricular pressure drops below atrial pressure
Ventricular diastole — lateUntil next cycleAll chambers relaxed; ventricles fill passively from atria (~70% of filling occurs here before next atrial systole)AV valves open; semilunar valves closed
SoundCauseMarks
S1 — "lubb"AV valves closing + semilunar valves openingStart of ventricular systole; longer than S2
S2 — "dupp"Semilunar valves closingStart of ventricular diastole
S3 and S4 (faint)Blood flowing into ventricles and atrial contractionUsually not heard in healthy adults; not associated with valve closure

Stroke Volume and Cardiac Output

Communicate the definition of stroke volume and cardiac output, and the factors that influence these values.

Stroke volume (SV) = the amount of blood ejected by one ventricle per heartbeat.

Cardiac output (CO) = the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per minute.

CO (mL/min) = Heart Rate (beats/min) × Stroke Volume (mL/beat)

Example: 75 bpm × 80 mL/beat = 6,000 mL/min (6 L/min) — approximately the total adult blood volume circulated each minute at rest. Maximum CO can reach 30 L/min when both HR and SV increase together (500–700% increase possible).

Frank-Starling principle: the greater the venous return → more ventricular stretch → more powerful contraction → greater SV. "More in = more out." Balances output between left and right ventricles under varying conditions.

Atrial (Bainbridge) reflex: increased venous return stretches the right atrial wall → stretch receptors → sympathetic → SA node depolarizes faster → HR increases.

DivisionNeurotransmitterEffect on HREffect on SV (contractility)
SympatheticNE (+ adrenal E/NE)Increases (faster SA node depolarization)Increases (stronger ventricular contraction)
ParasympatheticACh (vagus nerve)DecreasesDecreases (mainly atrial; limited ventricular innervation)

Both divisions are tonically active — cutting the vagus nerve increases HR; sympathetic blockers slow it. The cardioacceleratory center (medulla) governs sympathetic; the cardioinhibitory center (medulla) governs parasympathetic.

  • Epinephrine + norepinephrine (adrenal medullae) — increase both HR and contractile force
  • Thyroid hormones + glucagon — increase contractile force
ConditionEffect
Hypercalcemia (↑ Ca²⁺)Prolonged powerful contractions; extreme cases → fatal sustained contraction
Hypocalcemia (↓ Ca²⁺)Weak contractions; may cease altogether
Hyperkalemia (↑ K⁺)Weak, irregular contractions (alters SA node resting potential)
Hypokalemia (↓ K⁺)Reduced heart rate
↑ Body temperatureIncreases HR and contractile force (fever makes heart "race")
↓ Body temperatureSlows SA node depolarization; reduces HR and contractility